“Foreknew”–The English word "foreknew" is misleading here.
God’s purpose spoken of in v 28 is this: to make believers like Christ
It is a mistake to read it merely as ‘perceiving beforehand’.
The (arguably false) argument is:
It is a mistake to read it merely as ‘perceiving beforehand’.
The (arguably false) argument is:
"God knows beforehand who will believe on Him and who will not, as a result of which He predestined to salvation those whom He foresaw would believe on Him. Meaning, what He foreknows or foresees is their faith."
But logical thinking will show that such "predestination" is not predestination at all. What this describes is He “says yes to” someone's faith which He foresees will be there. This would make foreknown faith as a work of merit, missing the mark of translating the original word.
Even worse, it also misses the very point of the passage in it's context.
The verse does not say that" God foreknew what certain of his creatures would do".
It is not talking about human actions at all.
"Those whom He foreknew" are people, individuals from every land, tongue and nation.
The verse is speaking entirely of God and of what God does on behalf of the object of His foreknowledge, people -not their actions.
God loved certain ones; His sheep, from before the foundation of the world.
The Next Verse mentioning foreknowledge:
"...who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling by the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you, and peace, be multiplied." 1 Peter 1:2
Observe the three persons of the Trinity in this verse.
We see the cause and the origin of it – God’s choice.
We see the manner and process of it – the Spirit’s work.
We see the purpose and goal of it – obedience to Christ.
And we see the means and basis of it – the blood of Christ.
see notes at Rom 8:29 "... God has from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief in the truth."
2 Thessalonians 2:13
2 Thessalonians 2:13
Here are examples of how the Biblical text uses the term which is translated "foreknowledge."
In the Old Testament the word used is the Hebrew word "yada" which means "know."
"You only have I known (Hebrew equivalent: chosen) of all the families of the earth..." Amos 3:2 KJV
"You only have I chosen..."
This is the way God speaks of foreknowing in the sense that he set His special saving love upuon us from before the foundation of the world.
This is the way that Gen 18:19 is to be understood.
"I have chosen [known] Abraham so that he may charge his children...to keep the way of the Lord."
Jer 1:5
"Before I formed you in the womb, I knew [meaning "chose"] you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I appointed you a prophet to the nations."
Thus God foreknew (chose in love), God predestined,
Thus God foreknew (chose in love), God predestined,
God called,
God justified, and
God glorified
Rom 8:30 puts it in the past tense, since what God set out to do is as good as done!
This is precisely the point of the passage.
Let us take a look at the view of foreknowledge that says that God simply knew beforehand who would believe and therefore called them to be His children.
As noted above, the false belief that " God does not preordain any individual to anything; but the individual actually ordains himself. God in effect complies with the individual's choice."
This of course is patently unbiblical and is not predestination.
What does Scripture tell us of man's condition?
It tells us that man is "dead in transgressions and sins" Eph 2:1.
It says, "there is no one...who seeks God" Rom 3:10-11.
Jesus declared, "No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him" John 6:44.
In view of what Scripture teaches, what did (or would) God see beforehand looking down the corridors of time?
He saw people "dead" spiritually, who rejected him (Rom 1:18-23)
It tells us that man is "dead in transgressions and sins" Eph 2:1.
It says, "there is no one...who seeks God" Rom 3:10-11.
Jesus declared, "No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him" John 6:44.
In view of what Scripture teaches, what did (or would) God see beforehand looking down the corridors of time?
He saw people "dead" spiritually, who rejected him (Rom 1:18-23)
People who, if left to themselves would never choose to come to Him.
A dead person cannot come up with a response of any kind.
A spiritually dead person, similarly, cannot generate faith so as to believe. No, in eternity past, before the creation, the Fall, the covenants, or the Law, we were sovereignly predestined by God to be His.
What is God's purpose?...that we might be holy and blameless.
What was His motivation? Love.
"In love He predestined us to adoption as sons."
His goal and ultimate reason?
"to the praise of the glory of His grace."
God has done it for His own glory.
This is not popular thinking and gets a lot of feathers ruffled.
Humans do not like to think of themselves as "dead" and incapable of responding in faith to God.
But we are taught that even the faith given us by God's initiative is His gift (Eph 2:8).
Those who do respond to God's call are His sheep, His elect, to whom He has given the gift of faith by His grace.
God has done it for His own glory.
This is not popular thinking and gets a lot of feathers ruffled.
Humans do not like to think of themselves as "dead" and incapable of responding in faith to God.
But we are taught that even the faith given us by God's initiative is His gift (Eph 2:8).
Those who do respond to God's call are His sheep, His elect, to whom He has given the gift of faith by His grace.
“Before I formed you in the womb,
I knew you, and before you were born
I sanctified you, and I ordained you
a prophet to the nations”.
Jeremiah 1:5
(note: The same Hebrew word translated “knew” in this verse is translated “chosen” in Gen 18:19 and Amos 3:2)
Comments